I'm so math challenged, I don't know what this means. I started this thread re: the 1:6 vs. 6:36, but I don't really understand odds. Oh, I know the difference between 1:1, 6:5 on the 6/8 odds, or even 2:1 on the 4/10 odds. I know on 1:1 you win the same amount, on the 6:5, you win $6 for $5 bet, on 2:1, you win double your bet. Then, there are the horse-racing odds, all over the place: 5:2, 15:8, etc. How can I know one set of odds are better than another set of odds? So, what does 2:3 mean? Like if you bet $3, you'll win $2? That's like playing the don't on a number. Anyway, where do you get the 2:3 odds, or maybe you're just showing the unlikelihood that OAP will stick by what he said. 777, in his book had a good intro to understanding odds, but the book is buried in my packing, which I will not unpack, due to another move in another year. I think he said something like the first number shows the chances vs. the second number. So, the larger the first number, the smaller the second number, the more the odds show the least chance of winning, but a higher payoff if the horse/dice/number, whatever, wins? I think 777 said odds always show "against." IOW, 6:5 shows six chances of loss vs. 5 chances to win. So, 15:8 shows 15 chances to lose, vs. 8 chances to win? Man, how do I know a horse w/ 15:8 odds is a better bet than a horse w/ 32:15 odds, not that I want to play the horses? In this vein, do not KJ4's odds signify that OAP's abiding by his words signify OAP will not? If I'm correct, KJ4, good call. Maybe I understand odds more than I think.